Two-sample t test with equal variances
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Group | Obs Mean Std. Err. Std. Dev. [95% Conf. Interval]
---------+--------------------------------------------------------------------
male | 91 50.12088 1.080274 10.30516 47.97473 52.26703
female | 109 54.99083 .7790686 8.133715 53.44658 56.53507
---------+--------------------------------------------------------------------
combined | 200 52.775 .6702372 9.478586 51.45332 54.09668
---------+--------------------------------------------------------------------
diff | -4.869947 1.304191 -7.441835 -2.298059
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Degrees of freedom: 198
Ho: mean(male) - mean(female) = diff = 0
Ha: diff < 0 Ha: diff != 0 Ha: diff > 0
t = -3.7341 t = -3.7341 t = -3.7341
P < t = 0.0001 P > |t| = 0.0002 P > t = 0.9999
Source | SS df MS Number of obs = 200
-------------+------------------------------ F( 2, 197) = 46.58
Model | 7363.62077 2 3681.81039 Prob > F = 0.0000
Residual | 15572.5742 197 79.0486001 R-squared = 0.3210
-------------+------------------------------ Adj R-squared = 0.3142
Total | 22936.195 199 115.257261 Root MSE = 8.8909
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socst | Coef. Std. Err. t P>|t| [95% Conf. Interval]
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
science | .2191144 .0820323 2.67 0.008 .0573403 .3808885
math | .4778911 .0866945 5.51 0.000 .3069228 .6488594
_cons | 15.88534 3.850786 4.13 0.000 8.291287 23.47939
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To get the p-value for the one-tailed test of the variable science (assuming
that the effect is going in the predicted direction, which you can tell by the
sign of the coefficient), you would
divide the .008 by 2, yielding .004. If you had made your prediction in
the opposite direction, the p-value would have been 1 - .004 = .996.